For, example, one group charges that the Jewish scribes of the Middle Ages changed the vowel points, supposing that "Yeho-" was originally "Yahu-".  An examination of the LXX, however, will show that it also spells the form YHW differently at the beginning of words than at the end.  The LXX spells it () at the beginning and () at the end of words.   The "omega" in () is customarily pronounced "o" as in "note," and the "ou" in (), is pronounced "oo" as in "boot."  The "ia" is pronounced "Ya."  Thus these forms correspond to the vowels "yahu" and "ya" at the end of words, and "Yeho-" at the beginning.  The question, then is, if the Jewish scribes of the Middle Ages corrupted only the spelling of names at the beginning of the names, then why does Septuagint (LXX) usage exactly parallel the difference?  And why do the writings of the Sent-Ones  ("New Testament") adopt the same forms in Greek, showing that these ways of writing the names date back prior to the fourth century?!  An examination of Matthew 1 will show the difference in pronunciation.     It is my judgment that those who make up these charges against Jewish Scribes do so only for a desire to superior knowledge of an exclusive nature so that they can make an exclusive claim to truth and thereby exercise cultic power over their followers.      (Back, Use the Browser Back Button First).