If you want the ultimate scholarly proof that this Greek word oye does mean "latter" then see the note at the bottom of the page.  
The Two Sabbaths of Matthew 28:1

          We have translated Matthew 28:1 as, "The Latter of the Sabbaths, at the dawning on the first of the Sabbaths ...."  The first part of the verse, in Greek, is oye de sabbatwn.  Literally, we translate it as "Later yet of Sabbaths."  The "Later Sabbath" is the second of the two Sabbaths in Passover week.
          If this is the case, then why do the translators put "In the end of the Sabbath," or "After the Sabbath"?  The answer can only be that they are attempting to harmonize Matthew's statement with their Friday-Sunday chronology.  In order to do this, they translate "After the Sabbath".
         Translating oye as "After," however, is most strange.  This is a meaning that oye does not have according to some sources (cf. Thayer).  Normally, the word is translated "late," and like English it might be used in serveral senses, "the late President Kennedy," or "the style, of late, is to wear long dresses." 
         Late, though, is not the only meaning given to the word.  Scholars cite examples where the word means "later than" (cf. BAG, i.e. oye thV wraV) [later than the hour], and thus comes to approximate "after."  But we should note, if the word can mean "later than," it can also be a simple "later" [later of the hour, viz. a later part of the hour]
        It can be a simple "later," because the word "than" in "later than" is not a function of oye at all.  Rather "than" is just one of several ways of rendering a genitive.  The genitive can also be rendered "of," and it is rendered "of" more often than "than."  Hence, the same scholars that argue for "later than," must conceed that the word can also mean "later of."  Therefore, we are justified in translating "Later of the Sabbaths ...."
       The Greek speaks of  the "latter rain," i.e. oyimoV uetoV, but it might also speak of  the "late rain" oye uetoV and mean the same thing.  What oye de twn uetwn  means is readily apparent to the reader of Greek, i.e. "Late yet of the rains."  The phrase in Matthew 28:1 is to be taken in the same sense, oye de [twn] sabbatwn, i.e. "Late yet of the Sabbaths."  A good translation into idiomatic English might be: And on the latter of the Sabbaths (at dawn on the First Sabbath) Miryam Magdalene and the other Miryam came to see the tomb (Matthew 28:1, my translation).
      If we are willing to recognize it, then, Matthew gives a very precise statement concerning the time of the Resurrection.  In order to distinguish the two Sabbaths in Passover week, he calls the weekly Sabbath the "later" 
      Another example cited in BAG is oye musthrion , i.e. "later [than the] mysteries."  Also oye toutwn , "later of these things," or "later [than] these things."  Note that the exact sense is dependent on the ambiguity of the genitive case.  The genitive is interpreted as a comparitive genitive by using "than" to arrive at the sense of "after."  However, this has not gone undisputed:

    ... but an examination of the instances just cited (and others) will show that they fail to sustain the rendering after (Thayer's Lexicon).
      Liddell and Scott's Lexicon appends a timid "perh[aps]" to the suggestion that oye means after in Matthew 28:1.  Moulton, uncertain of himself, says "A Latinism? Just After," (Grammar of New Testament Greek, Edinburgh: T & T Clark, c. 1963, vol. III., pg. 278).  Obviously, someone needs to go through all the claimed usages of this word meaning after to see if it is really so in any case.
        The above approach, of course, was a linguistic one, meaning that the argument is based upon the primary evidence and the rules of linguistic science rather than simple authority.  All authority is ultimately based upon some evidence to which reason has to be applied, except divine revelation, which of course some people would like to claim in order to settle all issues.  But so that no one will think that we are without authority here see below.



     See BLASS, section 185, "The genitive of comparison" (A Greek Grammar of the New Testament and other Early Christian Literature, Chicago: The University of Chicago Press, 1961).  This grammar cites the usage above for "": "the gen. with  and  have become associated in meaning with " (sec. 164.4).  Since most people know little Greek, and BLASS did not translate it, I must translate the end of the sentence for you, "That is,  (later), is associated with "the latter of these," and the "former of these."  Clearly, they are saying that the word can mean  "later" in the sense of the latter of two events or occasions in a sequence. 
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